110. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as
A. health care administrators. B. covered entities. C. provisional health care data collectors. D. protected personnel.
111. The largest salivary glands are called the _______ glands.
A. amylase B. parotid C. sublingual D. submandibular
112. Which modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative period?
A. -59 B. -57 C. -58 D. -54
113. The voluntary program that’s financed through a combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by beneficiaries who elect to participate is called
A. CHAMPVA. B. Medicare Part B. C. Medicaid. D. TRICARE.
114. What is the full code description for 33536?
A. Repair of postinfarction ventricular septal defect, with or without myocardial resection B. Coronary artery bypass, using arterial graft(s); 4 or more coronary arterial grafts C. Repair of double outlet right ventricle with intraventricular tunnel repair D. Closure of atrioventricular valve (mitral or tricuspid) by suture or patch
115. Categorically needy and medically needy patients may qualify for
A. Medicaid. B. CHAMPVA. C. Champus. D. Medicare Advantage
116. ICD-10-CM code S50.351A indicates that the patient has a superficial foreign body of the right elbow. The A indicates that
A. code S50.351A should be assigned to page 1 of the medical record, but not subsequent pages. B. this is the patient’s first encounter. C. this is the patient’s second encounter for the same original diagnosis. D. code S50.351A should be sequenced before secondary codes.
117. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical location?
A. Fibula B. Heart C. Pancreas D. Liver
118. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned?
A. 99203, J06.9, R59.0 B. 99202, D63.1, J45.909 C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229 D. 99215, M19.011, R13.10
119. A patient has a disorder in which the bone marrow produces an overabundance of white blood cells. What is this disorder called?
A. Leukemia B. Hemophilia C. Coagulation D. Septicemia
120. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned?
A. L74.2 B. L72.3 C. L70.0 D. L73.1
121. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned?
A. B4072 B. B4125 C. B4034 D. B4278
122. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were developed to
A. ensure that coders could easily access each medical record. B. determine the structure of insurance carrier payments for health care practitioners. C. protect patient confidentiality when health information is transferred electronically. D. define XLTM standards for health records management.
123. Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is
A. business associates. B. insurance administrators. C. healthcare vendors. D. covered entities.
124. Bones inside the nose are called
A. maxillae. B. turbinates. C. ethmoids. D. septal mucosa.
125. The atrioventricular (tricuspid) valve is located in the
A. fibula. B. lung. C. heart. D. brain.
126. Another term for disease evolution is
A. exacerbation. B. remission. C. pathogenesis. D. morphology.
127. The vitreous humor can be found in the
A. ear. B. tongue. C. nose. D. eye.
128. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT?
A. 33202–33273 B. 33200–33205 C. 33437–33537 D. 33533–33799
129. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that
A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure. B. physicians may release medical information at their own discretion. C. restrictions on information disclosure exist only for patients with life-threatening illnesses. D. the level of information disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the procedure.
130. The abbreviation INH indicates what route of drug administration?
A. Inhaled and intrathecal administration B. Inhaled and intravenous administration C. Intrathecal injection D. Inhalant solution
131. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned?
A. 76775-TC, N15 B. 76775-26, N10 C. 73256-TC, M11 D. 71010-26, B12
132. What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law?
A. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law. B. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion. C. State laws overrule federal law. D. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration
133. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve?
A. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease. B. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart. C. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body. D. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.
134. The first step in EHR implementation is
A. structuring the timeline for EHR implementation. B. analyzing the content of the traditional medical record. C. conducting an assessment of the goals, needs, and financial stability of the health care practice. D. reviewing the list of established patients currently being seen in the practice.
135. The outcome of delivery code should be
A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery. B. assigned to the newborn record only. C. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs. D. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.
136. A patient is seen in the office for complaints of dizziness and insomnia. The physician records a chronological description of specific elements of the patient’s condition. This chronological description is called the
A. history of present illness. B. examination. C. review of systems. D. chief complaint.
137. What is the CPT code description for 64483?
A. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level B. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion C. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, multiple levels D. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance
138. Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may
A. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records. B. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers. C. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition. D. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.
139. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple medications to cut down on the number of pills
patients take on a daily basis
A. compounds the drugs’ effectiveness. B. increases the likelihood of compliance. C. decreases the frequency of drug interactions. D. supports good body function.
140. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called
A. quadriplegic. B. paraplegic. C. tetraplegic. D. hemiplegic.
141. Which of the following is true about HIPAA national standards?
A. The national standards apply to any electronic data interchange. B. The national standards apply only to data exchange within a specified geographical region. C. The national standards do not apply to surgical procedures in the inpatient setting. D. The national standards do not apply to data exchanged within a claim clearinghouse.
142. A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code?
A. -51 B. -AA C. -78 D. -76
143. The portion of health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an insurance plan is called the
A. deductible. B. OPPS reimbursement. C. capitation. D. coinsurance.
144. A patient is seen in follow-up two weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During the follow-up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split-thickness autograft due to a nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that’s 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD-10-CM codes would be assigned?
A. 15350, L52.64 B. 15250, L34.74 C. 15200, L85.64 D. 15100, L76.82
145. The Female Genital System subsection covers which CPT code range?
A. 56203–56303 B. 56607–56809 C. 56300–56499 D. 56405–58999
146. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right hip?
A. M16.12 B. M16.30 C. M16.11 D. M16.10
147. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the superior vena cava?
A. Hip B. Nose C. Lungs D. Heart
148. A patient receives an injection of nandrolone decanoate. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned?
A. J2323 B. J3530 C. J2320 D. J2300
149. The suffix –stasis means
A. breakdown. B. stopping and controlling. C. kinetic. D. flow.
150. A patient undergoes a sigmoidoscopy. The coder would assign CPT code
A. 45852. B. 45330. C. 45397. D. 45919.